[1] The idea of 'Directive Principles of State Policy' was borrowed by the framers of the Indian Constitution from the Constitution of –
A.
South Africa
B.
the Republic of Germany
C.
the Republic of Ireland
D.
Canada
Ans:
the Republic of Ireland
Explanation :
The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Article 45 of the Irish Constitution outlines a number of broad principles of social and economic policy. Its provisions are, however, intended solely "for the general guidance of the Oireachtas", and "shall not be cognizable by any Court under any of the provisions of this Constitution."
[2] In the Constitution of India, the Fundamental Rights –
A.
formed a part of the original Constitution
B.
were added by the Fourth Amendment
C.
were added by the Parliament in 152
D.
were added under the Fortysecond Amendment
Ans:
formed a part of the original Constitution
Explanation :
The fundamental rights were included in the First Draft Constitution (February 1948), the Second Draft Constitution (17 October, 1948) and final Third Draft Constitution (26 November, 1949) prepared by the Drafting Committee. The fundamental rights were included in the constitution right from its beginning because they were considered essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity.
[3] The success of democracy depends upon the –
A.
Right to criticise
B.
Right to association
C.
Right to personal liberty
D.
Right to property
Ans:
Right to personal liberty
Explanation :
Right to personal liberty is the bedrock of any democratic set up. In India, the right to life and personal liberty is available to all people and so is the right to freedom of religion. Time and again, the Supreme Court has reiterated that the word liberty is a very comprehensive word.
[4] Which one of the following ceased to be a fundamental right under the Constitution?
A.
Right to Education
B.
Right to work
C.
Right to property
D.
Right to Equality before Law
Ans:
Right to property
Explanation :
The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.
[5] Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined by:
A.
Pay Commission appointed by the President
B.
Law Commission
C.
Parliament
D.
Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves it to the Indian Parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
[6] Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the courts of Records?
A.
The High Court only
B.
The Supreme Court only
C.
The High Court and Supreme Court
D.
The District Court
Ans:
The High Court and Supreme Court
Explanation :
A court of record is a court whose acts and proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are used with a high authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme Court the `court of record". Article 215 empowers the High Courts of the states to be courts of record.
[7] The function of Protem Speaker is to –
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
B.
officiate as Speaker when a Speaker is unlikely to be elected
C.
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D.
check if the election certificates of members are in order
Ans:
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
Explanation :
In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most Member of Parliament is called protem speaker.
[8] Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A.
A member appointed by the President.
B.
A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.
C.
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
A senior most member of the House
Ans:
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
In the absehce of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
[9] Indian Parliament includes :
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Only Lok Sabha
C.
President and Lok Sabha
D.
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans:
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation :
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
[10] The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –
A.
every five years
B.
every six years
C.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
D.
None of the above
Ans:
None of the above
Explanation :
The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
[11] A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the-
A.
President of India
B.
Vice-President of India
C.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
Attorney-General of India
Ans:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
[12] Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
A.
State legislatures exclusively
B.
Parliament alone
C.
Parliament after State legislatures concur
D.
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans:
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation :
The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
[13] Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -
A.
a simple majority of its members
B.
2/3rd majority
C.
3/4th majority
D.
support of 1/3 of its members
Ans:
a simple majority of its members
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Article 45 of the Irish Constitution outlines a number of broad principles of social and economic policy. Its provisions are, however, intended solely "for the general guidance of the Oireachtas", and "shall not be cognizable by any Court under any of the provisions of this Constitution."
[2] In the Constitution of India, the Fundamental Rights –
A.
formed a part of the original Constitution
B.
were added by the Fourth Amendment
C.
were added by the Parliament in 152
D.
were added under the Fortysecond Amendment
Ans:
formed a part of the original Constitution
Explanation :
The fundamental rights were included in the First Draft Constitution (February 1948), the Second Draft Constitution (17 October, 1948) and final Third Draft Constitution (26 November, 1949) prepared by the Drafting Committee. The fundamental rights were included in the constitution right from its beginning because they were considered essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity.
[3] The success of democracy depends upon the –
A.
Right to criticise
B.
Right to association
C.
Right to personal liberty
D.
Right to property
Ans:
Right to personal liberty
Explanation :
Right to personal liberty is the bedrock of any democratic set up. In India, the right to life and personal liberty is available to all people and so is the right to freedom of religion. Time and again, the Supreme Court has reiterated that the word liberty is a very comprehensive word.
[4] Which one of the following ceased to be a fundamental right under the Constitution?
A.
Right to Education
B.
Right to work
C.
Right to property
D.
Right to Equality before Law
Ans:
Right to property
Explanation :
The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.
[5] Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined by:
A.
Pay Commission appointed by the President
B.
Law Commission
C.
Parliament
D.
Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves it to the Indian Parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
[6] Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the courts of Records?
A.
The High Court only
B.
The Supreme Court only
C.
The High Court and Supreme Court
D.
The District Court
Ans:
The High Court and Supreme Court
Explanation :
A court of record is a court whose acts and proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are used with a high authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme Court the `court of record". Article 215 empowers the High Courts of the states to be courts of record.
[7] The function of Protem Speaker is to –
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
B.
officiate as Speaker when a Speaker is unlikely to be elected
C.
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D.
check if the election certificates of members are in order
Ans:
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
Explanation :
In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most Member of Parliament is called protem speaker.
[8] Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A.
A member appointed by the President.
B.
A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.
C.
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
A senior most member of the House
Ans:
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
In the absehce of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
[9] Indian Parliament includes :
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Only Lok Sabha
C.
President and Lok Sabha
D.
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans:
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation :
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
[10] The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –
A.
every five years
B.
every six years
C.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
D.
None of the above
Ans:
None of the above
Explanation :
The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
[11] A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the-
A.
President of India
B.
Vice-President of India
C.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
Attorney-General of India
Ans:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
[12] Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
A.
State legislatures exclusively
B.
Parliament alone
C.
Parliament after State legislatures concur
D.
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans:
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation :
The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
[13] Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -
A.
a simple majority of its members
B.
2/3rd majority
C.
3/4th majority
D.
support of 1/3 of its members
Ans:
a simple majority of its members
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
Right to personal liberty is the bedrock of any democratic set up. In India, the right to life and personal liberty is available to all people and so is the right to freedom of religion. Time and again, the Supreme Court has reiterated that the word liberty is a very comprehensive word.
[4] Which one of the following ceased to be a fundamental right under the Constitution?
A.
Right to Education
B.
Right to work
C.
Right to property
D.
Right to Equality before Law
Ans:
Right to property
Explanation :
The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.
[5] Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined by:
A.
Pay Commission appointed by the President
B.
Law Commission
C.
Parliament
D.
Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves it to the Indian Parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
[6] Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the courts of Records?
A.
The High Court only
B.
The Supreme Court only
C.
The High Court and Supreme Court
D.
The District Court
Ans:
The High Court and Supreme Court
Explanation :
A court of record is a court whose acts and proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are used with a high authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme Court the `court of record". Article 215 empowers the High Courts of the states to be courts of record.
[7] The function of Protem Speaker is to –
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
B.
officiate as Speaker when a Speaker is unlikely to be elected
C.
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D.
check if the election certificates of members are in order
Ans:
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
Explanation :
In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most Member of Parliament is called protem speaker.
[8] Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A.
A member appointed by the President.
B.
A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.
C.
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
A senior most member of the House
Ans:
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
In the absehce of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
[9] Indian Parliament includes :
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Only Lok Sabha
C.
President and Lok Sabha
D.
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans:
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation :
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
[10] The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –
A.
every five years
B.
every six years
C.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
D.
None of the above
Ans:
None of the above
Explanation :
The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
[11] A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the-
A.
President of India
B.
Vice-President of India
C.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
Attorney-General of India
Ans:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
[12] Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
A.
State legislatures exclusively
B.
Parliament alone
C.
Parliament after State legislatures concur
D.
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans:
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation :
The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
[13] Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -
A.
a simple majority of its members
B.
2/3rd majority
C.
3/4th majority
D.
support of 1/3 of its members
Ans:
a simple majority of its members
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves it to the Indian Parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
[6] Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the courts of Records?
A.
The High Court only
B.
The Supreme Court only
C.
The High Court and Supreme Court
D.
The District Court
Ans:
The High Court and Supreme Court
Explanation :
A court of record is a court whose acts and proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are used with a high authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme Court the `court of record". Article 215 empowers the High Courts of the states to be courts of record.
[7] The function of Protem Speaker is to –
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
B.
officiate as Speaker when a Speaker is unlikely to be elected
C.
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D.
check if the election certificates of members are in order
Ans:
swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
Explanation :
In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most Member of Parliament is called protem speaker.
[8] Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A.
A member appointed by the President.
B.
A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.
C.
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
A senior most member of the House
Ans:
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
In the absehce of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
[9] Indian Parliament includes :
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Only Lok Sabha
C.
President and Lok Sabha
D.
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans:
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation :
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
[10] The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –
A.
every five years
B.
every six years
C.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
D.
None of the above
Ans:
None of the above
Explanation :
The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
[11] A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the-
A.
President of India
B.
Vice-President of India
C.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
Attorney-General of India
Ans:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
[12] Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
A.
State legislatures exclusively
B.
Parliament alone
C.
Parliament after State legislatures concur
D.
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans:
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation :
The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
[13] Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -
A.
a simple majority of its members
B.
2/3rd majority
C.
3/4th majority
D.
support of 1/3 of its members
Ans:
a simple majority of its members
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most Member of Parliament is called protem speaker.
[8] Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A.
A member appointed by the President.
B.
A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.
C.
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
A senior most member of the House
Ans:
A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
In the absehce of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
[9] Indian Parliament includes :
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Only Lok Sabha
C.
President and Lok Sabha
D.
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans:
President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation :
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
[10] The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –
A.
every five years
B.
every six years
C.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
D.
None of the above
Ans:
None of the above
Explanation :
The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
[11] A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the-
A.
President of India
B.
Vice-President of India
C.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
Attorney-General of India
Ans:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
[12] Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
A.
State legislatures exclusively
B.
Parliament alone
C.
Parliament after State legislatures concur
D.
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans:
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation :
The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
[13] Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -
A.
a simple majority of its members
B.
2/3rd majority
C.
3/4th majority
D.
support of 1/3 of its members
Ans:
a simple majority of its members
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
[10] The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –
A.
every five years
B.
every six years
C.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
D.
None of the above
Ans:
None of the above
Explanation :
The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
[11] A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the-
A.
President of India
B.
Vice-President of India
C.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
Attorney-General of India
Ans:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
[12] Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
A.
State legislatures exclusively
B.
Parliament alone
C.
Parliament after State legislatures concur
D.
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans:
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation :
The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
[13] Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -
A.
a simple majority of its members
B.
2/3rd majority
C.
3/4th majority
D.
support of 1/3 of its members
Ans:
a simple majority of its members
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
[12] Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
A.
State legislatures exclusively
B.
Parliament alone
C.
Parliament after State legislatures concur
D.
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans:
Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation :
The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
[13] Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -
A.
a simple majority of its members
B.
2/3rd majority
C.
3/4th majority
D.
support of 1/3 of its members
Ans:
a simple majority of its members
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
[14] Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
A.
Vice-President of India
B.
President of India
C.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
Prime Minister of India
Ans:
Vice-President of India
Explanation :
Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[15] Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –
A.
The Parliament
B.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.
The Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
The President
Ans:
The Parliament
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
[16] Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?
A.
The system is economical for representatives.
B.
Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C.
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D.
The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans:
It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation :
The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
[17] The Prime Minister of India is –
A.
Elected by the Lok Sabha
B.
Elected by the Parliament
C.
Appointed by the President
D.
Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans:
Appointed by the President
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
[18] Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -
A.
State Election Commissioner
B.
Election Commission of India
C.
State Government
D.
Central Government
Ans:
State Election Commissioner
Explanation :
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
[19] Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?
A.
Public health
B.
Sanitation
C.
Public utility service
D.
Maintenance of public order
Ans:
Maintenance of public order
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
[20] The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –
A.
Union Government
B.
State Government
C.
Union and State Governments
D.
Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans:
Union and State Governments
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
[21] Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A.
Election Commission
B.
Finance Commission
C.
Union Public Service Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
[22] The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –
A.
any Sessions Court
B.
High Court
C.
Supreme Court
D.
any court of law within the territory of India
Ans:
any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation :
Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
[23] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B.
To protect monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the history of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (A) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
[24] Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
A.
To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D.
To practice family planning and to control population
Ans:
To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation :
To practise family planning and to control population is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
[25] Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
A.
To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B.
To visit the monuments of national importance
C.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D.
To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans:
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
Explanation :
One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."