Indian Polity Questions for Competitive Exam – Set 55 | GK Infopedia

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[1] As per United Nations Convention on the Law of sea (UNCLOS) states are entitled for Jurisdiction over sea water as under —
A. three miles from sea shore as territorial waters
B. twelve miles from the shore for shipping
C. two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
D. all the three jurisdictions
Ans: two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
Explanation : As per United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea (UNCLOS) States are entitled for Jurisdiction over Sea water under (i) three miles from sea shore as territorial waters (ii) twelve miles from the shore for shipping (iii) two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).

[2] Under Bush Doctrine, the USA held states responsible for activities inside their territor and thus acquired the right to -
A. act unilaterally against rogue and failed states
B. act against states which were opposed to it ideologically
C. move against states which refused to join in drive for NATO expansion
D. intervene institutions of ethnic cleansing
Ans: act unilaterally against rogue and failed states
Explanation : The Bush Doctrine was laid down by the US President George W, Bush in 2001. It refers to foreign policy principles of the President of the united states, George W. Bush. Charles Krathammer first used the phrase in June 2001. Generally, the Bush Doctrine was used to indicate a willingness to unilaterally Pursue U. S. military interests. Some of these policies were incorporated in a National Security Council proposal the National Security strategy of the United states, published on September 20, 2002.

[3] The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban regime in Afghanistan after—
A. 9/11 attacks in the US
B. attacks on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania
C. attack on US military mission headquarter in Riyadh
D. failures of talks on gas pipeline through Afghanistan
Ans: attacks on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania
Explanation : The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban Regime in Afghanistan after attack on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania in1998.

[4] The Council of Ministers has to resign if no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of members of-
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Both the Houses separately
D. Both the Houses in joint sitting
Ans: Lok Sabha
Explanation : The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of members of Lok Sabha. A motion of no confidence is primarily a statement or vote which states that a person in a superior position be it government, managerial, etc.

[5] Which of the following statements is not correct in relation to Dr. Manmohan Singh?
A. Former Finance Minister
B. Former Governor of RBI
C. Former Representative of India in International Monetary Fund
D. Member of Rajya Sabha
Ans: Former Representative of India in International Monetary Fund
Explanation : Dr. Manmohan Singh Rajya Sabha MP and was former finance minister, former governor of RBI.

[6] Which one of the following is part of the Electoral College for the election of the president of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. State Legislative Councils
D. State legislative Assemblies
Ans: State legislative Assemblies
Explanation : State legislature assemblies, both houses of the parliament form part of the electoral college for the election of the president. An electoral college is a set of electors who are selected to elect a candidate to a particular office. Often these represent different organizations or entities, with each organization or entity represented by a particular number of electors or with votes weighted in a particular way.

[7] If the PM belonged to the upper House of Parliament?
A. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion.
B. He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House.
C. He can make statements only in the Upper House.
D. He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after swearing in as the PM.
Ans: He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion.
Explanation : He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion.

[8] With reference to India polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Planning commission is accountable to parliament.
B. President can make ordinance only when either of the two houses of parliament is not in session.
C. The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years.
D. NDC is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the states.
Ans: President can make ordinance only when either of the two houses of parliament is not in session.
Explanation : President can promulgate ordinances when the parliament is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the parliament within six weeks from its re-assembly. Article 123 in the Constitution of India 1949 describes the power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament. If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinance as the circumstances appear to him to require.

[9] Department of Border management is a department of which one of the following Union Ministers?
A. Ministry of Defense
B. Ministry of Home Affairs.
C. Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
D. Ministry of Environment and Forest.
Ans: Ministry of Home Affairs.
Explanation : Department of border management is a department of ministry of Home affairs of the union minister. Department of Border Management is dealing with management of borders, including coastal borders.

[10] If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha -
A. He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months
B. He/she can declare the government's policies only in the Rajya Sabha
C. He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration
D. He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in the Lok Sabha
Ans: He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration
Explanation : He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration.

[11] Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha?
A. Chandra Shekhar
B. Morarji Desai
C. Chaudhary Charan Singh
D. VP Singh
Ans: Chaudhary Charan Singh
Explanation : On August 20, 1979, Charan Singh resigned without moving the motion after the Congress withdrew support.

[12] The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in -
A. either house of the Parliament
B. a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament
C. the Lok Sabha alone
D. the Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: either house of the Parliament
Explanation : Under Article 61, the President of India can be removed from the office by a process of impeachment for the violation of the Constitution. The impeachment is to be initiated by either House of Parliament.

[13] The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system through single transferable vote. This implies that -
A. each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes
B. MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of votes
C. all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
D. MPs and MLAs of different States have different numbers of votes
Ans: all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
Explanation : Irrespective of the fact that a number of seats may have to be filled, this system postulates one vote for each voter with the reservation that this single vote is transferred to other candidates. This is the reason why this system is known as "single transferable vote system."

[14] Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in India is appointed by the -
A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Law Minister
Ans: President
Explanation : The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of Supreme court as per the following procedure.

[15] Which of the following authorities is/are competent to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A. President
B. Supreme Court
C. Supreme Court and High Courts
D. Parliament
Ans: Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation : Both the Supreme Court (Article 139) and the High Courts (Article 226) are empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warranto and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. While the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights, the high courts can issue writs for other purposes as well.

[16] Which of the following is incorrect regarding schedule VI of our Constitution?
A. The areas are administered as Autonomous districts over which the executive authority of the states extends
B. The Government has the power to create new autonomous districts
C. The autonomous districts are provided with elected bodies known as district councils
D. It deals with the administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland
Ans: It deals with the administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland
Explanation : Schedule VI of our Constitution does not deal with the administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland. There is the provision for administration of Tribal Area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh in VI schedule of Indian Constitution.

[17] The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its :
A. Advisory jurisdiction
B. Appellate jurisdiction
C. Original jurisdiction
D. Constitutional jurisdiction
Ans: Original jurisdiction
Explanation : Under Article 131, disputes between different units of the Federation will be within the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court, has original jurisdiction in any dispute (1) between the Government of India and one or more States; or (2) between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or (3) between two or more States.

[18] The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union list of legislative powers rests with:
A. The President of India
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Parliament
D. The Union Ministry of Law
Ans: The Parliament
Explanation : The parliament can regulate the organization and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It can expand the jurisdiction but can't curtail the same.

[19] The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India does not extend to which of the following matters?
A. between the Government of India and one or more States
B. between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other
C. between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends
D. dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sand or other similar instrument
Ans: dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sand or other similar instrument
Explanation : Any dispute between the Union and one or more states comes under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.

[20] The Legislative Council in a State in India can be created or abolished by the -
A. Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state.
B. Parliament alone
C. Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution of that effect.
D. Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers.
Ans: Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution of that effect.
Explanation : Legislative council in state can be created or abolished by Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution.

[21] Who can initiate impeachment of the President?
A. 1/4th members of either House of Parliament
B. Half of the members of either House of Parliament
C. Half of the State Legislatures
D. 1/3rd members of any State Legislature
Ans: 1/4th members of either House of Parliament
Explanation : The President may be removed before the expiry of the term through impeachment. A President can be removed for violation of the Constitution of India. The process may start in either of the two houses of the Parliament. The house initiates the process by levelling the charges against the President. The charges are contained in a notice that has to be signed by at least one quarter of the total members of that house. The notice is sent up to the President and 14 days later, it is taken up for consideration. A resolution to impeach the President has to be passed by a special majority (two-third majority of the total members present and voting and simple majority of total membership of the originating house). It is then sent to the other house. The other house investigates the charges that have been made

[22] What can the President do if a State fails to comply with the Directives of the Central Government?
A. He can dissolve State Legislature and order fresh elections
B. He can declare the break-down aconstitutional machinery in the State and assume responsibility for the governance of the State
C. He can send paramilitary forces to the State to secure compliance
D. Any of the above
Ans: He can declare the break-down aconstitutional machinery in the State and assume responsibility for the governance of the State
Explanation : If the President is satisfied, on the basis of the report of the Governor of the concerned state or from other sources that the governance in a state cannot be carried out according to the provisions in the Constitution, he/she can declare a state of emergency in the state. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within a period of 2 months. Under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, it can be imposed from six months to a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months.

[23] Rajya Sabha being a Permanent house –
A. one-third of its members retire every two years
B. one-half of its members retire every three years
C. one-fifth of its members retire every year
D. one-sixth of its members retire every year
Ans: one-third of its members retire every two years
Explanation : The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retire every second year, and are replaced by newly elected members. Each member is elected for a term of six years.

[24] The Joint Session of both the Houses of Parliament is summoned by –
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: President
Explanation : No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill, the President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it.

[25] The President of India who held office for two terms was –
A. S. Radhakrishnan
B. K.R. Narayanan
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
D. Babu Rajendra Prasad
Ans: Babu Rajendra Prasad
Explanation : Rajendra Prasad was The first president of independent India. He is the only president to have been elected twice for the office. In 1962, after serving twelve years as the president, lie announced his decision to retire.



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