Indian Polity Questions for Competitive Exam – Set 31 | GK Infopedia

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[1] Age of a candidate to contest Parliamentary election should not be lesser than–
A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 26 years
Ans: 25 years
Explanation : To be eligible for membership in the Lok Sabha, a person must be a citizen of India and must be 25 years of age or older, mentally sound, should not be bankrupt and should not be criminally convicted. The minimum age for a person to become a member of Rajya Sabha is 30 years.

[2] The term of a Governor is –
A. 4 Years
B. 5 Years
C. 6 Years
D. 3 Years
Ans: 5 Years
Explanation : As per Article 156 of Indian constitution, a Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He holds office during the pleasure of the President and so may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.

[3] Postal voting is otherwise called –
A. plural voting
B. proxy voting
C. weighted voting
D. sceret voting
Ans: proxy voting
Explanation : Postal voting describes the method of voting in an election whereby ballot papers are distributed or returned by post to electors in contrast to electors voting in person at a polling station or electronically via an electronic voting system. In the United Kingdom, absent voting was first introduced for the immediate post-war period in 1918 for servicemen and others prevented ‘by reason of the nature of their occupation, from voting at a poll’ by the Representation of the People Act 1918. Armed forces still serving overseas at the end of World War I were allowed to vote by post, and permanent arrangements were made for proxy voting by servicemen. The Representation of the People Act 1945 again made temporary provision for postal voting by service voters.

[4] A Unitary form of government is that in which all the powers are concentrated in the hands of –
A. Local government
B. Central government
C. Provincial government
D. Panchayats
Ans: Central government
Explanation : Unitary form is a form of government in which most or all of the governing power resides in a centralized government. The central government is supreme, and the administrative divisions exercise only powers that the central government has delegated to them. It contrasts with a federal system.

[5] Which type of emergency has been imposed only one time in India so far?
A. Internal Emergency
B. State Emergency
C. External Emergency
D. Financial Emergency
Ans: Internal Emergency
Explanation : Between 26 June, 1975 to 21 March, 1977 under controversial circumstances of political instability under the Indira Gandhi's prime ministership — "the security of India" was declared "threatened by internal disturbances."

[6] Which of the folowing motion is related with the Union Budget?
A. Adjournment
B. Censure
C. Cut
D. None of the above
Ans: Cut
Explanation : Cut motion is a veto power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the government. This can turn into an effective tool to test the strength of the government. If a cut motion is adopted by the House and the government does not have the numbers, it is obliged to resign.

[7] How many persons can be nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha from among those who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service, etc.?
A. None
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
Ans: 12
Explanation : Rajya Sabha membership is limited to 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by the President of India for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.

[8] What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?
A. Three years
B. Four years
C. Five years
D. Six years
Ans: Six years
Explanation : The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retire every second year, and are replaced by newly elected members. Each member is elected for a term of six years.

[9] Every member of the Commission, State Commission and every officer appointed or authorized by the Commission or State Commission to exercise functions under the Protection of Human Rights Act is to be deemed -
A. Public Officer
B. Public Servant
C. Officer of Commission
D. None of the above
Ans: Public Officer
Explanation : Every member of the Commission, State Commission and every officer appointed or authorized by the Commission or State Commission to exercise functions under the Protection of Human.

[10] The President of India enjoys emergency powers of –
A. four types
B. two types
C. five types
D. three types
Ans: three types
Explanation : A state of emergency in India refers to a period of governance under an altered constitutional setup that can be proclaimed by the President of India, when he/she perceives grave threats to the nation from internal and external sources or from financial situations of crisis. The President can declare three types of emergencies: National emergency (caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory), State emergency (declared on failure of constitutional machinery in a state) and Financial emergency (if the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened).

[11] The fundamental duties are mentioned in the following part of the Constitution of India -
A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part IV A
D. Part VI
Ans: Part IV A
Explanation : part IV - A fundamental duties part IV - Directive Principles of state policy part III - Fundamental rights part VI - The states.

[12] If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the constitution must be amended?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fifth
Ans: First
Explanation : The states and UTs of India are specified in the first schedule. So to form a new state and alteration of area requires the amendment of first schedule of the constitution. First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4) lists the states and territories of India, lists any changes to their borders and the laws used to make that change.

[13] How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Six
Ans: Five
Explanation : The Supreme Court, the highest in the country, may issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and under Articles 139 for enforcement of rights other than Fundamental Rights, while High Courts, the superior courts of the States, may issue writs under Articles 226. The Constitution broadly provides for five kinds of "prerogative" writs: habeas corpus, certiorari, mandamus, quo warranto and prohibition.

[14] Of the following words in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, which was not inserted through the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976?
A. Socialist
B. Secular
C. Dignity
D. Integrity
Ans: Dignity
Explanation : The Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, attempted to reduce the power of the Indian Supreme Court and High Courts to pronounce upon the constitutional validity of laws. It also declared India to be a socialist and secular republic, and as securing fraternity assuring the unity "and integrity" of the Nation, by adding these words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

[15](3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the –
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Lok Sabha
D. Rajya Sabha
Ans: Parliament
Explanation : Article 75 states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

[16] Which article of the Constitution deals with money bills :
A. Article 130
B. Article 110
C. Article 120
D. Article 100
Ans: Article 110
Explanation : Money Bills are defined in Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. According to this article, a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of certain matters listed by it. It adds that if any question arises whether a 13111 is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People shall be final.

[17] Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding antidefection Act?
A. Second Schedule
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Eighth Schedule
D. Tenth Schedule
Ans: Tenth Schedule
Explanation : Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution Ideals f with vacation of seats and disqualification from membership of Parliament d the State Legislatures on account of defection. It was added to the constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), popularly known as the anti-defection law.

[18] Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides free legal aid and equal justice?
A. 30
B. 25
C. 39-A
D. 33-B
Ans: 39-A
Explanation : Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Article 14 and

[19] Fabianism is closely related to:
A. Fascism
B. Scientific socialism
C. Democratic socialism
D. Liberalism
Ans: Democratic socialism
Explanation : The Fabian Society is a British socialist organization whose purpose is to advance the principles of democratic socialism via gradualist and reformist; rather than revolutionary, means. It is best known for its initial ground-breaking work beginning late in the 19th century and continuing up to World War I. The society laid many of the foundations of the Labour Party and subsequently affected the policies of states emerging from the decolonization of the British Empire, especially India.

[20] The minimum number of workers who can form a Trade Union and get it registered under Trade Union Act?
A. 7
B. 25
C. 100
D. 50
Ans: 7
Explanation : As per the Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 2001, no trade union of workmen shall be registered unless at least 10% or 100, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of 7 workmen engaged or employed in the establishment or industry with which it is connected are the members of such trade union on the date of making of application for registration. It also states that a registered trade union of workmen shall at all times continue to have not less than 10% or 100 of the workmen, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of 7 persons engaged or employed in the establishment or industry with which it is connected, as its members. So the minimum member required to start a trade union is 7, the only condition is they must have same problem in common.

[21] Despotism is possible in a –
A. One party state
B. Two party state
C. Multi Party state
D. Two and multi party state
Ans: One party state
Explanation : Despotism is a form of government in which a single entity rules with absolute power. That entity may be an individual, as in an autocracy, or it may be a group. In its classical form, despotism is a state in which a single individual (the despot) wields all the power and authority embodying the state, and everyone else is a subsidiary person. This form of despotism was common in the first forms of statehood, and civilization; the Pharaoh of Egypt is exemplary of the classical despot. Colloquially, despot has been applied pejoratively to a person, particularly a head of state or government, who abuses their power and authority to oppress their people, subjects or subordinates. In this sense, it is similar to the pejorative connotations that have likewise arisen with the term tyrant.

[22] The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was for the first time amended by the -
A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. None of the above
Ans: 42nd Amendment
Explanation : The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document. As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a "sovereign democratic republic". In 1976 the Forty-second Amendment changed this to read "sovereign socialist secular democratic republic".

[23] Who is the custodian of Indian Constitution?
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Council Court
D. Supreme Court
Ans: Supreme Court
Explanation : The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the guardian of the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final interpreter of the Constitution. The interpretation of the Constitution given by the Supreme Court is to be respected. Council court is a legislative body of Local bodies, i.e. Bar council of India.

[24] The system of judicial review originated in –
A. India
B. Gemany
C. Russia
D. U.S.A.
Ans: U.S.A.
Explanation : Judicial review is the doctrine under which legislative and executive actions are subject to review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary. It is an example of the separation of powers in a modern governmental system (where the judiciary is one of three branches of government). Is is one of the main characteristics of government in the Republic of the United States. In the United States, federal and state courts (at all levels, both appellate and trial) are able to review and declare the "constitutionality", or agreement with the Constitution (or lack there of) of legislation that is relevant to any case properly within their jurisdiction. In American legal language, "judicial review" refers primarily to the adjudication of constitutionality of statutes, especially by the Supreme Court of the United States.

[25] All the executive powers in Indian Constitution are vested with -
A. Prime Minister
B. Council of Ministers
C. President
D. Parliament
Ans: Prime Minister
Explanation : All the executive powers are vested with Prime Minister.



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