[1] In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the Chairperson of the State Commission, who can authorize one of the members to act as Chairperson?
A.
The C hief Justice of the High Court
B.
The President
C.
The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission
D.
The Governor
Ans:
The Governor
Explanation :
In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the chairperson of the state commission, The Governor can authorize one of the members to act as Chairperson.
[2] Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
A.
Indian Institute of Public Administration
B.
Administrative Staff College of India
C.
L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
D.
Centre for Advanced Studies
Ans:
L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
Explanation :
L.B.S. National Academy of Administration's main purpose is to train civil service officers of Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Forest Service; and also for Group-A Central Services such as Indian Foreign Service among others.
[3] Which of the following international institutions has a more democratic way of decision -making on matters of global importance?
A.
General Assembly of the united Nations
B.
International Monetary Fund
C.
Security Council of the United Nations
D.
World Bank
Ans:
General Assembly of the united Nations
Explanation :
The General Assembly of the United Nations has a more democratic way of decision-making on the matters of global importance.
[4] Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic form of government?
A.
Majority rule
B.
Rights of minorities
C.
Universal adult franchise
D.
Majoritarianism
Ans:
Majoritarianism
Explanation :
Majoritarianism is not a feature of a democratic form of government. It is a traditional political philosophy or agenda which asserts that a majority of the population is entitled to a certain degree of primacy in society, and has the right to make decisions that affect the society.
[5] The President of the India is :
A.
The head of the `State'
B.
The head of the Government
C.
The head of the State as well as Government
D.
None of these
Ans:
The head of the State as well as Government
Explanation :
The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
[6] When a constitutional amendment bill goes to the President, he –
A.
can withhold his assent
B.
can return it to the Parliament for reconsideration
C.
can delay it for not more than six months
D.
is bound to give his assent
Ans:
is bound to give his assent
Explanation :
All bills passed by the Parliament can become laws only after receiving the assent of the President. The President can return a bill to the Parliament, if it is not a money bill or a constitutional amendment bill, for reconsideration.
[7] The President of India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of –
A.
The Prime Minister
B.
The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union
C.
The Council of Ministers of the Union
D.
Parliament
Ans:
The Council of Ministers of the Union
Explanation :
National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month
[8] The President of India has the discretionary power to –
A.
impose President's Rule in a state
B.
appoint the Prime Minister
C.
appoint the Chief Election Commissioner
D.
declare Financial Emergency
Ans:
appoint the Prime Minister
Explanation :
The President of India can use discretionary powers under the following situations: (i) In appointing the Prime Minister from among the contenders when no single party attains majority after elections to the Lok Sabha; (ii) While exercising a pocket veto; (iii) Returning the Bill passed by the Parliament once for its reconsideration; etc.
[9] Name the two non-permanent Houses in the Parliamentary setup of India.
A.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
B.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
C.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
D.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Ans:
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Explanation :
In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and 'Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
[10] The largest committee of Parliament of India is –
A.
Public Accounts Committee
B.
Estimates Committee
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
D.
Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans:
Estimates Committee
Explanation :
The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. It analyses the expenditure and revenue estimates of various departments and suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
[11] The constitutional amendment through which the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali were included in the constitution is:
A.
72nd
B.
92nd
C.
93rd
D.
94th
Ans:
94th
Explanation :
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali languages. It raised the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22. The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the Government of India has the responsibility to develop.
[12] On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of the state charged?
A.
Consolidated fund of India
B.
Consolidated fund of the State
C.
Contingency fund of India
D.
Contingency fund of the state
Ans:
Consolidated fund of the State
Explanation :
Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
[13] The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
A.
Parliament
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Governor of the state
D.
The President of India.
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the chairperson of the state commission, The Governor can authorize one of the members to act as Chairperson.
[2] Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
A.
Indian Institute of Public Administration
B.
Administrative Staff College of India
C.
L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
D.
Centre for Advanced Studies
Ans:
L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
Explanation :
L.B.S. National Academy of Administration's main purpose is to train civil service officers of Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Forest Service; and also for Group-A Central Services such as Indian Foreign Service among others.
[3] Which of the following international institutions has a more democratic way of decision -making on matters of global importance?
A.
General Assembly of the united Nations
B.
International Monetary Fund
C.
Security Council of the United Nations
D.
World Bank
Ans:
General Assembly of the united Nations
Explanation :
The General Assembly of the United Nations has a more democratic way of decision-making on the matters of global importance.
[4] Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic form of government?
A.
Majority rule
B.
Rights of minorities
C.
Universal adult franchise
D.
Majoritarianism
Ans:
Majoritarianism
Explanation :
Majoritarianism is not a feature of a democratic form of government. It is a traditional political philosophy or agenda which asserts that a majority of the population is entitled to a certain degree of primacy in society, and has the right to make decisions that affect the society.
[5] The President of the India is :
A.
The head of the `State'
B.
The head of the Government
C.
The head of the State as well as Government
D.
None of these
Ans:
The head of the State as well as Government
Explanation :
The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
[6] When a constitutional amendment bill goes to the President, he –
A.
can withhold his assent
B.
can return it to the Parliament for reconsideration
C.
can delay it for not more than six months
D.
is bound to give his assent
Ans:
is bound to give his assent
Explanation :
All bills passed by the Parliament can become laws only after receiving the assent of the President. The President can return a bill to the Parliament, if it is not a money bill or a constitutional amendment bill, for reconsideration.
[7] The President of India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of –
A.
The Prime Minister
B.
The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union
C.
The Council of Ministers of the Union
D.
Parliament
Ans:
The Council of Ministers of the Union
Explanation :
National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month
[8] The President of India has the discretionary power to –
A.
impose President's Rule in a state
B.
appoint the Prime Minister
C.
appoint the Chief Election Commissioner
D.
declare Financial Emergency
Ans:
appoint the Prime Minister
Explanation :
The President of India can use discretionary powers under the following situations: (i) In appointing the Prime Minister from among the contenders when no single party attains majority after elections to the Lok Sabha; (ii) While exercising a pocket veto; (iii) Returning the Bill passed by the Parliament once for its reconsideration; etc.
[9] Name the two non-permanent Houses in the Parliamentary setup of India.
A.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
B.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
C.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
D.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Ans:
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Explanation :
In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and 'Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
[10] The largest committee of Parliament of India is –
A.
Public Accounts Committee
B.
Estimates Committee
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
D.
Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans:
Estimates Committee
Explanation :
The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. It analyses the expenditure and revenue estimates of various departments and suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
[11] The constitutional amendment through which the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali were included in the constitution is:
A.
72nd
B.
92nd
C.
93rd
D.
94th
Ans:
94th
Explanation :
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali languages. It raised the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22. The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the Government of India has the responsibility to develop.
[12] On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of the state charged?
A.
Consolidated fund of India
B.
Consolidated fund of the State
C.
Contingency fund of India
D.
Contingency fund of the state
Ans:
Consolidated fund of the State
Explanation :
Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
[13] The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
A.
Parliament
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Governor of the state
D.
The President of India.
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
The General Assembly of the United Nations has a more democratic way of decision-making on the matters of global importance.
[4] Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic form of government?
A.
Majority rule
B.
Rights of minorities
C.
Universal adult franchise
D.
Majoritarianism
Ans:
Majoritarianism
Explanation :
Majoritarianism is not a feature of a democratic form of government. It is a traditional political philosophy or agenda which asserts that a majority of the population is entitled to a certain degree of primacy in society, and has the right to make decisions that affect the society.
[5] The President of the India is :
A.
The head of the `State'
B.
The head of the Government
C.
The head of the State as well as Government
D.
None of these
Ans:
The head of the State as well as Government
Explanation :
The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
[6] When a constitutional amendment bill goes to the President, he –
A.
can withhold his assent
B.
can return it to the Parliament for reconsideration
C.
can delay it for not more than six months
D.
is bound to give his assent
Ans:
is bound to give his assent
Explanation :
All bills passed by the Parliament can become laws only after receiving the assent of the President. The President can return a bill to the Parliament, if it is not a money bill or a constitutional amendment bill, for reconsideration.
[7] The President of India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of –
A.
The Prime Minister
B.
The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union
C.
The Council of Ministers of the Union
D.
Parliament
Ans:
The Council of Ministers of the Union
Explanation :
National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month
[8] The President of India has the discretionary power to –
A.
impose President's Rule in a state
B.
appoint the Prime Minister
C.
appoint the Chief Election Commissioner
D.
declare Financial Emergency
Ans:
appoint the Prime Minister
Explanation :
The President of India can use discretionary powers under the following situations: (i) In appointing the Prime Minister from among the contenders when no single party attains majority after elections to the Lok Sabha; (ii) While exercising a pocket veto; (iii) Returning the Bill passed by the Parliament once for its reconsideration; etc.
[9] Name the two non-permanent Houses in the Parliamentary setup of India.
A.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
B.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
C.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
D.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Ans:
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Explanation :
In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and 'Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
[10] The largest committee of Parliament of India is –
A.
Public Accounts Committee
B.
Estimates Committee
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
D.
Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans:
Estimates Committee
Explanation :
The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. It analyses the expenditure and revenue estimates of various departments and suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
[11] The constitutional amendment through which the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali were included in the constitution is:
A.
72nd
B.
92nd
C.
93rd
D.
94th
Ans:
94th
Explanation :
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali languages. It raised the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22. The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the Government of India has the responsibility to develop.
[12] On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of the state charged?
A.
Consolidated fund of India
B.
Consolidated fund of the State
C.
Contingency fund of India
D.
Contingency fund of the state
Ans:
Consolidated fund of the State
Explanation :
Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
[13] The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
A.
Parliament
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Governor of the state
D.
The President of India.
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
[6] When a constitutional amendment bill goes to the President, he –
A.
can withhold his assent
B.
can return it to the Parliament for reconsideration
C.
can delay it for not more than six months
D.
is bound to give his assent
Ans:
is bound to give his assent
Explanation :
All bills passed by the Parliament can become laws only after receiving the assent of the President. The President can return a bill to the Parliament, if it is not a money bill or a constitutional amendment bill, for reconsideration.
[7] The President of India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of –
A.
The Prime Minister
B.
The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union
C.
The Council of Ministers of the Union
D.
Parliament
Ans:
The Council of Ministers of the Union
Explanation :
National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month
[8] The President of India has the discretionary power to –
A.
impose President's Rule in a state
B.
appoint the Prime Minister
C.
appoint the Chief Election Commissioner
D.
declare Financial Emergency
Ans:
appoint the Prime Minister
Explanation :
The President of India can use discretionary powers under the following situations: (i) In appointing the Prime Minister from among the contenders when no single party attains majority after elections to the Lok Sabha; (ii) While exercising a pocket veto; (iii) Returning the Bill passed by the Parliament once for its reconsideration; etc.
[9] Name the two non-permanent Houses in the Parliamentary setup of India.
A.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
B.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
C.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
D.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Ans:
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Explanation :
In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and 'Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
[10] The largest committee of Parliament of India is –
A.
Public Accounts Committee
B.
Estimates Committee
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
D.
Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans:
Estimates Committee
Explanation :
The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. It analyses the expenditure and revenue estimates of various departments and suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
[11] The constitutional amendment through which the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali were included in the constitution is:
A.
72nd
B.
92nd
C.
93rd
D.
94th
Ans:
94th
Explanation :
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali languages. It raised the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22. The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the Government of India has the responsibility to develop.
[12] On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of the state charged?
A.
Consolidated fund of India
B.
Consolidated fund of the State
C.
Contingency fund of India
D.
Contingency fund of the state
Ans:
Consolidated fund of the State
Explanation :
Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
[13] The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
A.
Parliament
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Governor of the state
D.
The President of India.
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month
[8] The President of India has the discretionary power to –
A.
impose President's Rule in a state
B.
appoint the Prime Minister
C.
appoint the Chief Election Commissioner
D.
declare Financial Emergency
Ans:
appoint the Prime Minister
Explanation :
The President of India can use discretionary powers under the following situations: (i) In appointing the Prime Minister from among the contenders when no single party attains majority after elections to the Lok Sabha; (ii) While exercising a pocket veto; (iii) Returning the Bill passed by the Parliament once for its reconsideration; etc.
[9] Name the two non-permanent Houses in the Parliamentary setup of India.
A.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
B.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
C.
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
D.
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Ans:
The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Explanation :
In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and 'Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
[10] The largest committee of Parliament of India is –
A.
Public Accounts Committee
B.
Estimates Committee
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
D.
Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans:
Estimates Committee
Explanation :
The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. It analyses the expenditure and revenue estimates of various departments and suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
[11] The constitutional amendment through which the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali were included in the constitution is:
A.
72nd
B.
92nd
C.
93rd
D.
94th
Ans:
94th
Explanation :
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali languages. It raised the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22. The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the Government of India has the responsibility to develop.
[12] On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of the state charged?
A.
Consolidated fund of India
B.
Consolidated fund of the State
C.
Contingency fund of India
D.
Contingency fund of the state
Ans:
Consolidated fund of the State
Explanation :
Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
[13] The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
A.
Parliament
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Governor of the state
D.
The President of India.
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and 'Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
[10] The largest committee of Parliament of India is –
A.
Public Accounts Committee
B.
Estimates Committee
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
D.
Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans:
Estimates Committee
Explanation :
The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. It analyses the expenditure and revenue estimates of various departments and suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
[11] The constitutional amendment through which the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali were included in the constitution is:
A.
72nd
B.
92nd
C.
93rd
D.
94th
Ans:
94th
Explanation :
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali languages. It raised the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22. The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the Government of India has the responsibility to develop.
[12] On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of the state charged?
A.
Consolidated fund of India
B.
Consolidated fund of the State
C.
Contingency fund of India
D.
Contingency fund of the state
Ans:
Consolidated fund of the State
Explanation :
Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
[13] The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
A.
Parliament
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Governor of the state
D.
The President of India.
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali languages. It raised the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22. The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the Government of India has the responsibility to develop.
[12] On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of the state charged?
A.
Consolidated fund of India
B.
Consolidated fund of the State
C.
Contingency fund of India
D.
Contingency fund of the state
Ans:
Consolidated fund of the State
Explanation :
Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
[13] The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
A.
Parliament
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Governor of the state
D.
The President of India.
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
The Parliament may make a provision for a common High Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or more Union Territories.
[14] 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian Parliament means –
A.
Hour before the Question Hour
B.
The first Hour of the Session
C.
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
D.
When Privilege Motion, is accepted
Ans:
Interval between Question Flour and next Agenda
Explanation :
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. In 'Zero Hour' members can raise questions without prior notice to the Chairman. Question Hour is the first hour in India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions. During this hour members can raise questions about any aspect of administrative activity. Zero Flour follows Question Hour.
[15] Presidential form of government consists of the following:
A.
Fixed term of office
B.
No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
C.
Popular election of the President
D.
All of the above
Ans:
All of the above
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
A presidential system is a republican system of government where a head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from a legislative branch. The executive is elected and often titled "president" and is not responsible to the legislature and cannot, in normal circumstances, dismiss it.
[16] "Residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution means –
A.
the powers relating to International Affairs.
B.
the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
C.
the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
D.
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Ans:
the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Explanation :
0
[17] If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the –
A.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
Vice President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Prime Minister
Ans:
Vice President
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
According to Article 56 of Indian Constitution, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The same article states that the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
[18] If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Sched-uled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
A.
President
B.
Parliament
C.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
D.
Union Council of Ministers
Ans:
Parliament
Explanation :
According to Article 342 of Indian constitution, the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor there of, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory. The same article adds that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community.
[19] When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
A.
Prime Minister of India
B.
The Chief Justice of India
C.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans:
The Chief Justice of India
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
Parliament has by an enactment made provision for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
[20] The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _.
A.
The President
B.
The Prime Minister
C.
a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans:
a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Explanation :
As per Article 94 of Indian constitution, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The same article states that no resolution for the purpose shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been of the intention to move the resolution.
[21] The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in –
A.
Appointment of Chief Minister
B.
Dismissal of the Ministry
C.
Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
D.
Assent to Bills
Ans:
Assent to Bills
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
The Sarkaria Commission examined the scope of the discretion of the Governor in relation to assent to the Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. It viewed that Article 200 does not provide discretion to the Governor either expressly or by implication. The commission observed that, the scope of Governor's discretion is very limited as is obvious by the fact that the Governor cannot withhold assent to a reconsidered Bill.
[22] Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
A.
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C.
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
D.
Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans:
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
[23] The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court -
A.
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
B.
to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
C.
where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
D.
to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans:
to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
[24] Which one among the following statements is not correct?
A.
The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 of the Constitution of India
B.
The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C.
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
D.
The Fundamental Rights can he abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans:
Punishments can he prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation :
The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part In and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
[25] Which is NOT a central Service?
A.
Indian Police Service
B.
Indian Foreign Service
C.
Indian Audit & Accounts Service
D.
Indian Revenue Service
Ans:
Indian Police Service
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.
Explanation :
The Central Civil Services are concerned with the administration of the Union Government. All appointments to Civil Services, Group A are made by the President of India. Indian Revenue Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian. Audits and Accounts Service, Indian Trade Service, etc are all central civil services. Indian Administrative Service, Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service are All India Civil Services (AIS), the appointments of which are made by the President of India.