[1] Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?
A.
Attorney-General
B.
Cabinet Secretary
C.
Home Secretary
D.
Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
Ans:
Cabinet Secretary
Explanation :
The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant in the Government of India. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India. The Cabinet Secretary is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
[2] Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the Parliament?
A.
Attorney-General of India
B.
Chief Justice of India
C.
Chief Election Commissioner of India
D.
Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Ans:
Attorney-General of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General of India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General is responsible for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.
[3] Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?
A.
The Prime Minister
B.
The Member of NITI Aayog
C.
The Chief Ministers of States
D.
The President of India
Ans:
The President of India
Explanation :
The National Development Council comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the Union Territories and the members of the NITI Aayog. The President of India is not a part of this body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India.
[4] An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:
A.
War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
B.
War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
C.
Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
D.
Financial instability in the country.
Ans:
War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Explanation :
National emergency under article 352, emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi).
[5] The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency -
A.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
B.
on the advice of the Council of Ministers
C.
in his own discretion
D.
when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Ans:
when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Explanation :
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the National Emergency in India can be declared by the President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
[6] If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
A.
the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B.
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C.
Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D.
the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans:
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Explanation :
The President's Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356... He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. So "B" is the right answer.
[7] The First Act permitting legal marriage with a person not belonging to one's endongamous group is –
A.
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
B.
Abolition of Untouchability Act
C.
Special Marriage Act
D.
Arya Samaj Marriage Validity Act
Ans:
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
Explanation :
Pratilorna (hypogamy) marriage among Hindus was invalid while anuloma (hypergamy) marriage was permitted till late 1940s. However there were judicial decisions against the validity of such marriage. The 1949 Hindu Marriage Validity Act validated all marriage between parties belonging to different religions, castes sub-castes or sects. But it did not validate marriage between a Hindu and a Muslim.
[8] The states which have a common High Court are –
A.
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
B.
Gujarat and Orissa
C.
Maharashtra and Goa
D.
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans:
Maharashtra and Goa
Explanation :
Bombay High Court at Mumbai, Maharashtra, is one of the oldest High Courts of India with jurisdiction over the states of Maharashtra & Goa, and, the Union Territories of Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The High Court has regional benches at Nagpur and Aurangabad in Maharashtra and Panaji, Goa.
[9] The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by –
A.
Regulating Act of 1773
B.
Pitts India Act of 1784
C.
Charter Act of 1793
D.
Charter Act of 1813
Ans:
Regulating Act of 1773
Explanation :
The Regulating Act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William, Calcutta. It consisted of one Chief Justice and three other regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court. The Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all British subjects including the provinces of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
[10] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
B.
Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
C.
Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
D.
Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities
Ans:
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
Explanation :
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees right to the life and liberty. However, during internal emergency (1975-77), the Right to move to the court to enforce Article 21 was suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution. Soon a question arose if, in such a situation, a writ of Habeas Corpus was maintainable? ADM Jabalpur Vs Shiv Kant Shukla AIR 1976, also known as the Habeas Corpus case, dealt with this question.
[11] Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?
A.
Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations
B.
Land Reforms
C.
To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
D.
Panchayati Raj System
Ans:
Panchayati Raj System
Explanation :
Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that "Panchayat" means an institution (by whatever name called) of self- government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas".
[12] What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force?
A.
Six months
B.
One year
C.
Two years
D.
Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans:
One year
Explanation :
President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. It is imposed for six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. But 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the one time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Therefore from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.
[13] Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A.
Union Public Service Commission
B.
State Public Service Commission
C.
Finance Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant in the Government of India. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India. The Cabinet Secretary is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
[2] Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the Parliament?
A.
Attorney-General of India
B.
Chief Justice of India
C.
Chief Election Commissioner of India
D.
Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Ans:
Attorney-General of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General of India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General is responsible for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.
[3] Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?
A.
The Prime Minister
B.
The Member of NITI Aayog
C.
The Chief Ministers of States
D.
The President of India
Ans:
The President of India
Explanation :
The National Development Council comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the Union Territories and the members of the NITI Aayog. The President of India is not a part of this body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India.
[4] An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:
A.
War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
B.
War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
C.
Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
D.
Financial instability in the country.
Ans:
War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Explanation :
National emergency under article 352, emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi).
[5] The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency -
A.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
B.
on the advice of the Council of Ministers
C.
in his own discretion
D.
when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Ans:
when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Explanation :
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the National Emergency in India can be declared by the President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
[6] If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
A.
the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B.
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C.
Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D.
the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans:
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Explanation :
The President's Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356... He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. So "B" is the right answer.
[7] The First Act permitting legal marriage with a person not belonging to one's endongamous group is –
A.
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
B.
Abolition of Untouchability Act
C.
Special Marriage Act
D.
Arya Samaj Marriage Validity Act
Ans:
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
Explanation :
Pratilorna (hypogamy) marriage among Hindus was invalid while anuloma (hypergamy) marriage was permitted till late 1940s. However there were judicial decisions against the validity of such marriage. The 1949 Hindu Marriage Validity Act validated all marriage between parties belonging to different religions, castes sub-castes or sects. But it did not validate marriage between a Hindu and a Muslim.
[8] The states which have a common High Court are –
A.
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
B.
Gujarat and Orissa
C.
Maharashtra and Goa
D.
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans:
Maharashtra and Goa
Explanation :
Bombay High Court at Mumbai, Maharashtra, is one of the oldest High Courts of India with jurisdiction over the states of Maharashtra & Goa, and, the Union Territories of Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The High Court has regional benches at Nagpur and Aurangabad in Maharashtra and Panaji, Goa.
[9] The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by –
A.
Regulating Act of 1773
B.
Pitts India Act of 1784
C.
Charter Act of 1793
D.
Charter Act of 1813
Ans:
Regulating Act of 1773
Explanation :
The Regulating Act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William, Calcutta. It consisted of one Chief Justice and three other regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court. The Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all British subjects including the provinces of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
[10] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
B.
Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
C.
Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
D.
Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities
Ans:
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
Explanation :
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees right to the life and liberty. However, during internal emergency (1975-77), the Right to move to the court to enforce Article 21 was suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution. Soon a question arose if, in such a situation, a writ of Habeas Corpus was maintainable? ADM Jabalpur Vs Shiv Kant Shukla AIR 1976, also known as the Habeas Corpus case, dealt with this question.
[11] Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?
A.
Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations
B.
Land Reforms
C.
To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
D.
Panchayati Raj System
Ans:
Panchayati Raj System
Explanation :
Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that "Panchayat" means an institution (by whatever name called) of self- government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas".
[12] What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force?
A.
Six months
B.
One year
C.
Two years
D.
Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans:
One year
Explanation :
President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. It is imposed for six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. But 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the one time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Therefore from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.
[13] Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A.
Union Public Service Commission
B.
State Public Service Commission
C.
Finance Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
The National Development Council comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the Union Territories and the members of the NITI Aayog. The President of India is not a part of this body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India.
[4] An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:
A.
War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
B.
War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
C.
Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
D.
Financial instability in the country.
Ans:
War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Explanation :
National emergency under article 352, emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi).
[5] The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency -
A.
on the advice of the Prime Minister
B.
on the advice of the Council of Ministers
C.
in his own discretion
D.
when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Ans:
when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Explanation :
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the National Emergency in India can be declared by the President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
[6] If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
A.
the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B.
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C.
Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D.
the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans:
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Explanation :
The President's Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356... He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. So "B" is the right answer.
[7] The First Act permitting legal marriage with a person not belonging to one's endongamous group is –
A.
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
B.
Abolition of Untouchability Act
C.
Special Marriage Act
D.
Arya Samaj Marriage Validity Act
Ans:
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
Explanation :
Pratilorna (hypogamy) marriage among Hindus was invalid while anuloma (hypergamy) marriage was permitted till late 1940s. However there were judicial decisions against the validity of such marriage. The 1949 Hindu Marriage Validity Act validated all marriage between parties belonging to different religions, castes sub-castes or sects. But it did not validate marriage between a Hindu and a Muslim.
[8] The states which have a common High Court are –
A.
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
B.
Gujarat and Orissa
C.
Maharashtra and Goa
D.
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans:
Maharashtra and Goa
Explanation :
Bombay High Court at Mumbai, Maharashtra, is one of the oldest High Courts of India with jurisdiction over the states of Maharashtra & Goa, and, the Union Territories of Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The High Court has regional benches at Nagpur and Aurangabad in Maharashtra and Panaji, Goa.
[9] The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by –
A.
Regulating Act of 1773
B.
Pitts India Act of 1784
C.
Charter Act of 1793
D.
Charter Act of 1813
Ans:
Regulating Act of 1773
Explanation :
The Regulating Act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William, Calcutta. It consisted of one Chief Justice and three other regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court. The Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all British subjects including the provinces of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
[10] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
B.
Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
C.
Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
D.
Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities
Ans:
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
Explanation :
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees right to the life and liberty. However, during internal emergency (1975-77), the Right to move to the court to enforce Article 21 was suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution. Soon a question arose if, in such a situation, a writ of Habeas Corpus was maintainable? ADM Jabalpur Vs Shiv Kant Shukla AIR 1976, also known as the Habeas Corpus case, dealt with this question.
[11] Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?
A.
Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations
B.
Land Reforms
C.
To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
D.
Panchayati Raj System
Ans:
Panchayati Raj System
Explanation :
Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that "Panchayat" means an institution (by whatever name called) of self- government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas".
[12] What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force?
A.
Six months
B.
One year
C.
Two years
D.
Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans:
One year
Explanation :
President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. It is imposed for six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. But 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the one time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Therefore from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.
[13] Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A.
Union Public Service Commission
B.
State Public Service Commission
C.
Finance Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the National Emergency in India can be declared by the President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
[6] If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
A.
the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B.
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C.
Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D.
the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans:
the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Explanation :
The President's Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356... He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. So "B" is the right answer.
[7] The First Act permitting legal marriage with a person not belonging to one's endongamous group is –
A.
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
B.
Abolition of Untouchability Act
C.
Special Marriage Act
D.
Arya Samaj Marriage Validity Act
Ans:
Hindu Marriage Validity Act
Explanation :
Pratilorna (hypogamy) marriage among Hindus was invalid while anuloma (hypergamy) marriage was permitted till late 1940s. However there were judicial decisions against the validity of such marriage. The 1949 Hindu Marriage Validity Act validated all marriage between parties belonging to different religions, castes sub-castes or sects. But it did not validate marriage between a Hindu and a Muslim.
[8] The states which have a common High Court are –
A.
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
B.
Gujarat and Orissa
C.
Maharashtra and Goa
D.
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans:
Maharashtra and Goa
Explanation :
Bombay High Court at Mumbai, Maharashtra, is one of the oldest High Courts of India with jurisdiction over the states of Maharashtra & Goa, and, the Union Territories of Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The High Court has regional benches at Nagpur and Aurangabad in Maharashtra and Panaji, Goa.
[9] The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by –
A.
Regulating Act of 1773
B.
Pitts India Act of 1784
C.
Charter Act of 1793
D.
Charter Act of 1813
Ans:
Regulating Act of 1773
Explanation :
The Regulating Act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William, Calcutta. It consisted of one Chief Justice and three other regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court. The Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all British subjects including the provinces of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
[10] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
B.
Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
C.
Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
D.
Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities
Ans:
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
Explanation :
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees right to the life and liberty. However, during internal emergency (1975-77), the Right to move to the court to enforce Article 21 was suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution. Soon a question arose if, in such a situation, a writ of Habeas Corpus was maintainable? ADM Jabalpur Vs Shiv Kant Shukla AIR 1976, also known as the Habeas Corpus case, dealt with this question.
[11] Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?
A.
Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations
B.
Land Reforms
C.
To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
D.
Panchayati Raj System
Ans:
Panchayati Raj System
Explanation :
Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that "Panchayat" means an institution (by whatever name called) of self- government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas".
[12] What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force?
A.
Six months
B.
One year
C.
Two years
D.
Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans:
One year
Explanation :
President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. It is imposed for six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. But 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the one time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Therefore from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.
[13] Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A.
Union Public Service Commission
B.
State Public Service Commission
C.
Finance Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Pratilorna (hypogamy) marriage among Hindus was invalid while anuloma (hypergamy) marriage was permitted till late 1940s. However there were judicial decisions against the validity of such marriage. The 1949 Hindu Marriage Validity Act validated all marriage between parties belonging to different religions, castes sub-castes or sects. But it did not validate marriage between a Hindu and a Muslim.
[8] The states which have a common High Court are –
A.
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
B.
Gujarat and Orissa
C.
Maharashtra and Goa
D.
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans:
Maharashtra and Goa
Explanation :
Bombay High Court at Mumbai, Maharashtra, is one of the oldest High Courts of India with jurisdiction over the states of Maharashtra & Goa, and, the Union Territories of Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The High Court has regional benches at Nagpur and Aurangabad in Maharashtra and Panaji, Goa.
[9] The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by –
A.
Regulating Act of 1773
B.
Pitts India Act of 1784
C.
Charter Act of 1793
D.
Charter Act of 1813
Ans:
Regulating Act of 1773
Explanation :
The Regulating Act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William, Calcutta. It consisted of one Chief Justice and three other regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court. The Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all British subjects including the provinces of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
[10] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
B.
Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
C.
Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
D.
Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities
Ans:
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
Explanation :
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees right to the life and liberty. However, during internal emergency (1975-77), the Right to move to the court to enforce Article 21 was suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution. Soon a question arose if, in such a situation, a writ of Habeas Corpus was maintainable? ADM Jabalpur Vs Shiv Kant Shukla AIR 1976, also known as the Habeas Corpus case, dealt with this question.
[11] Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?
A.
Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations
B.
Land Reforms
C.
To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
D.
Panchayati Raj System
Ans:
Panchayati Raj System
Explanation :
Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that "Panchayat" means an institution (by whatever name called) of self- government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas".
[12] What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force?
A.
Six months
B.
One year
C.
Two years
D.
Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans:
One year
Explanation :
President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. It is imposed for six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. But 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the one time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Therefore from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.
[13] Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A.
Union Public Service Commission
B.
State Public Service Commission
C.
Finance Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
The Regulating Act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William, Calcutta. It consisted of one Chief Justice and three other regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court. The Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all British subjects including the provinces of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
[10] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
B.
Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
C.
Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
D.
Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities
Ans:
ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
Explanation :
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees right to the life and liberty. However, during internal emergency (1975-77), the Right to move to the court to enforce Article 21 was suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution. Soon a question arose if, in such a situation, a writ of Habeas Corpus was maintainable? ADM Jabalpur Vs Shiv Kant Shukla AIR 1976, also known as the Habeas Corpus case, dealt with this question.
[11] Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?
A.
Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations
B.
Land Reforms
C.
To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
D.
Panchayati Raj System
Ans:
Panchayati Raj System
Explanation :
Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that "Panchayat" means an institution (by whatever name called) of self- government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas".
[12] What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force?
A.
Six months
B.
One year
C.
Two years
D.
Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans:
One year
Explanation :
President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. It is imposed for six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. But 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the one time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Therefore from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.
[13] Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A.
Union Public Service Commission
B.
State Public Service Commission
C.
Finance Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that "Panchayat" means an institution (by whatever name called) of self- government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas".
[12] What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force?
A.
Six months
B.
One year
C.
Two years
D.
Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans:
One year
Explanation :
President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. It is imposed for six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. But 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the one time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Therefore from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.
[13] Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A.
Union Public Service Commission
B.
State Public Service Commission
C.
Finance Commission
D.
Planning Commission
Ans:
Planning Commission
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by the provisions of Constitution).
[14] The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to -
A.
Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.
B.
Advise the president on financial matters
C.
Advise the president on financial matters.
D.
Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state Governments.
Ans:
Advise the president on financial matters.
Explanation :
The finance commission can only advise the president on financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
[15] Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with –
A.
Emergency Provisions
B.
Right to Primary Education
C.
Right to Information
D.
Amending Procedure
Ans:
Amending Procedure
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
[16] Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is not a member?
A.
Vice President
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General
D.
Election Commissioner
Ans:
Attorney General of India
Explanation :
Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
[17] The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
A.
the Law Minister
B.
the President of India
C.
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
the Prime Minister
Ans:
the President of India
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
[18] The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A.
4 years
B.
5 years
C.
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D.
not fixed
Ans:
not fixed
Explanation :
The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
[19] Indian Parliament consists of -
A.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
C.
Speaker and Lok Sabha
D.
President and both the Houses
Ans:
President and both the Houses
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house.
[20] Money bill is introduced in -
A.
Lok Sabha
B.
Rajya Sabha
C.
Joint sitting of both the Houses
D.
None of the above
Ans:
Lok Sabha
Explanation :
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.
[21] The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list -
A.
by the wish of the president
B.
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C.
under any circumstances
D.
by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans:
if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.
[22] Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
A.
First Administrative Reforms Committee
B.
Gorwala Report
C.
Ashok Mehta Commitee
D.
The Appleby Reports
Ans:
First Administrative Reforms Committee
Explanation :
The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-1970), headed by Morarji Desai, recommended the setting up of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand.
[23] Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
A.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B.
The President
C.
The joint session of Parliament
D.
None of these
Ans:
None of these
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
[24] The function of the pro-tam in the absence of Speaker is to -
A.
conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of speakers.
B.
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
C.
only check if the election certificates of the members are in order
D.
None of the above
Ans:
officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected
Explanation :
The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament held under the Protem Speaker.
[25] Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
A.
Calling attention motion
B.
Discussion under Rule 377
C.
Censure motion
D.
Short duration discussion
Ans:
Calling attention motion
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
Explanation :
Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.